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Posted On: 13-08-2026
102. (All. H.C.) (Decided on: 31.07.2026)

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Matrimonial dispute — Abetment of suicide — Absence of proximity — Where deceased and accused had no contact for 5 months and 12 days preceding suicide, and there was no cogent evidence of harassment or instigation, presumption under Section 113-A cannot be invoked to sustain conviction under Section 306 IPC.

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Demand of dowry -- Burden of proof -- Where alleged dowry demand and payment are not proved beyond reasonable doubt and accused raises a reasonable defence of prior matrimonial disputes on preponderance of probabilities, conviction under Sections 498-A IPC and 4 of Dowry Prohibition Act is unsustainable.

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A. Indian Penal Code, 1860 (45 of 1860), Section 306 -- Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (1 of 1872), Section 113-A -- Abetment of suicide -- Absence of proximity -- Presumption under Section 113-A -- The deceased and her husband were not in contact with each other for 5 months and 12 days since FIR was registered by the deceased against the appellant -- It cannot be said that the appellant abetted the deceased to commit suicide even without there having been any contact or communication between them -- In the absence of any cogent evidence as regards harassment or abetment in any form like aiding or instigating, the Court cannot straightway invoke Section 113-A and presume that the accused abetted the commission of suicide.

(Paras 51, 56, 58)

B. Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 (28 of 1961), Sections 3 and 4 -- Indian Penal Code, 1860 (45 of 1860), Section 498-A -- Demand of dowry -- Preponderance of probabilities -- The allegation of harassment for demand of dowry was levelled for the first time in FIR, prior to which the appellant had already filed a criminal complaint and a suit for divorce against the deceased -- The allegation of giving Rs.6,00,000/- in cash as dowry has not been proved beyond reasonable doubt -- There are serious discrepancies in the statements of the witnesses regarding the demand of dowry and harassment therefor -- The appellant was merely required to raise a doubt against the prosecution case on the basis of mere preponderance of probabilities, which he succeeded to do -- Therefore, the prosecution failed to establish the ingredients of Section 498-A IPC and Section 4 of the Dowry Prohibition Act – Appellant acquitted.

(Paras 42, 43, 59)

Posted On: 12-08-2026
106. (All. H.C.) (Reserved on: 02.07.2026 Decided on: 29.07.2026)

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S. 34 IPC -- Constructive liability -- One who keeps watch to enable companions to commit an offence is as much a participant in the common intention as the principal offender.

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Rape -- Intact hymen -- Slight penetration – It is sufficient to constitute sexual intercourse necessary for offence of rape -- Rupture of hymen not a sine qua non for proving offence.

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Sentencing -- Omission to impose fine -- In appeal preferred by accused alone, imposition of fine would amount to enhancement of sentence and Court cannot place accused in more disadvantageous position.

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A. Indian Penal Code, 1860 (45 of 1860), Section 34 -- Constructive liability -- Active and passive participation -- Standing guard -- For attracting Section 34 IPC, prosecution must establish existence of common intention and participation of accused in commission of crime -- Such participation may be active or even passive, provided it is intended to facilitate or advance the common design -- One who keeps watch to enable his companions to commit an offence is as much a participant in the common intention as the principal offender.

(Paras 4, 5, 6, 11, 12)

B. Indian Penal Code, 1860 (45 of 1860), Sections 375 and 376 -- Medical evidence -- Intact hymen -- Slight penetration – It is sufficient to constitute the sexual intercourse necessary for the offence of rape -- Rupture of the hymen is not a sine qua non for proving the offence -- Absence of injuries or an intact hymen cannot, by itself, be a ground to discredit an otherwise credible and consistent testimony of a victim of sexual assault.

(Para 13)

C. Indian Penal Code, 1860 (45 of 1860), Section 376(2)(g) – Rape -- Sentencing -- Omission to impose fine -- Enhancement in appeal preferred by accused -- Where IPC provision prescribes punishment in the form of imprisonment and fine, failure to impose fine amounts to an error in sentencing -- Since imposition of fine would amount to enhancement of sentence already awarded, Court, while deciding appeal preferred by accused alone, cannot place him in a more disadvantageous position -- Omission of trial Court, though legally erroneous, cannot be rectified in appellate proceedings.

(Para 22)

Posted On: 12-08-2026
107. (H.P. HC) (Decided on: 03.07.2026)

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Dishonour of cheque -- Expression "insufficient funds" is a genus and dishonour for reasons such as "account closed", "payment stopped" and "referred to the drawer" are species of that genus -- Expression cannot be given narrower meaning, rather requires to be given wider meaning.

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Dishonour of cheque – Merger of Bank -- Accused cannot be permitted to take advantage of the situation that cheque issued by bank, which ultimately merged into some other bank, had become old, especially when account remained the same with new bank.

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A. Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (26 of 1881), Section 138 -- Dishonour of cheque – Merger of Banks -- Return memo with remarks "88-Old Cheque" -- Expression "insufficient funds" is a genus and dishonour for reasons such as "account closed", "payment stopped" and "referred to the drawer" are species of that genus -- Expression cannot be given narrower meaning, rather requires to be given wider meaning -- Whether at the time of issuance of cheque accused had sufficient funds in the account is a relevant factor to be decided by Trial Court in totality of evidence -- Accused cannot be permitted to take advantage of the situation that cheque issued by bank, which ultimately merged into some other bank, had become old, especially when account remained the same with new bank.

(Para 2, 4, 14, 15, 18)

B. Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (26 of 1881), Section 138 -- Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (46 of 2023), Section 528 -- Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Section 482 -- Merger of Banks -- Return memo with remarks "88-Old Cheque" -- Quashing of complaint -- Disputed questions of fact and law -- Questions whether bank with which bank of accused came to be merged was under legal obligation to honour cheque and extent of its liability under terms governing merger are matters germane to controversy -- Such questions involve disputed issues of fact and law, which can be effectively adjudicated only after parties have led evidence in a full-fledged trial -- Prima facie case made out and sufficient material available to connect accused with alleged commission of offence -- Complaint cannot be quashed at threshold.

(Para 22, 25)

Posted On: 09-08-2026
114. (SC) (Decided on: 04.08.2026)

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Condonation of delay -- Appeal against conviction -- Liberal approach should be taken insofar as delay occasioned in filing an appeal from an order of conviction and sentence.

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Sole eyewitness testimony -- May result in conviction, but only when the testimony is believable, credible, consistent with the other circumstances and inspires the confidence of the Court, and not when there are serious discrepancies raising a reasonable doubt as to the witnessing of the incident.

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Confession to police -- A confession having been made by the accused after his arrest definitely cannot be relied upon; inadmissible under Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.

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S. 27 Evidence Act -- Recovery of stones and a brick rejected, nothing found in the stones recovered connecting those to the murder; no blood stains were visibly seen, nor were any detected on chemical examination at the Forensic Science Laboratory.

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A. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Section 383 -- Jail Appeal -- Condonation of delay -- Access to justice -- Constitutional Courts should take a liberal approach insofar as delay occasioned in filing an appeal from an order of conviction and sentence, depriving a person of the most valuable and fundamental of all rights; liberty -- Not a mere liberal approach but a pro-active one to condone delay, however large it is, when a convict knocks at the door of a Court in appeal.

(Para 3)

B. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (1 of 1872), Section 134 -- Sole eyewitness testimony -- Conviction based on single eyewitness -- Serious discrepancies -- The testimony of the eyewitness was shaky and highly improbable -- Eyewitness testimony alone resulting in conviction is not impermissible, but only when the testimony is believable, credible, consistent with the other circumstances and inspires the confidence of the Court, and not when there are serious discrepancies raising a reasonable doubt as to the witnessing of the incident.

(Paras 11, 14, 15, 17)

C. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (1 of 1872), Section 25 -- Confession to police -- Inadmissibility -- A confession having been made by the accused after his arrest definitely cannot be relied upon; inadmissible under Section 25.

(Paras 12, 18)

D. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (1 of 1872), Section 27 -- Recovery of weapons -- Contradictions in recovery -- Absence of blood stains -- The recovery of stones and a brick from the accused was rightly rejected since there was nothing found in the stones recovered connecting those to the murder -- No blood stains were visibly seen, nor were any detected on chemical examination at the Forensic Science Laboratory -- The First Informant, the eyewitness and the mahazar witnesses consistently said that the stones and brick were lying near the bodies, in plain view and with blood stains.

(Para 13)

Posted On: 09-08-2026
115. (SC) (Decided on: 04.08.2026)

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Subvention Scheme -- TMA Pai Foundation Case -- Payment of Subvention Amount beyond Academic Year 2002-03 -- It was impermissible to direct release of the subvention amount for the entire 5-year course even after academic year 2002-03 once the subvention scheme was declared unconstitutional on 31.10.2002.

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Precedents -- Retrospective versus Prospective Applicability -- If a decision of the Apex Court does not expressly provide its application to be prospective, the law declared by the Court will have retrospective effect unless otherwise stated -- Prospective application was intended only for such statutory provisions which stipulated something contrary to the ratio laid down in the TMA Pai Foundation case.

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A. Education Law -- Subvention Scheme -- TMA Pai Foundation Case -- Payment of Subvention Amount beyond Academic Year 2002-03 -- The scheme of subvention obligated the Central Government to pay the subvention amount to each eligible college on an annual basis and not for the entire course in lump sum -- It was not incumbent upon the Central Government to pay the subvention amount for the entire 5-year course in one go -- Directing release of the subvention amount for the entire 5 years even after academic year 2002-03 was impermissible once the subvention scheme was declared unconstitutional on 31.10.2002.

(Para 8, 12.2, 12.3, 13)

B. TMA Pai Foundation & Ors. v. State of Karnataka -- Retrospective versus Prospective Application -- If a decision of the Apex Court does not expressly provide its application to be prospective, then it is settled law that all decisions of this Court are retrospective in application -- A conjoint reading of paragraph 393 of the final decision in TMA Pai Foundation case by 11-Judge Bench and the clarificatory order dated 01.04.2003 of the Division Bench of this Court makes it abundantly clear that the intention of this Court was to give prospective application to only such statutory provisions which stipulated something contrary to the ratio laid down in the final decision in TMA Pai Foundation case by 11-Judge Bench -- The schemes or executive instructions, particularly the subvention scheme, ceased to operate on 31.10.2002.

(Para 11, 12.1, 12.2)

Posted On: 09-08-2026
116. (SC) (Decided on: 06.08.2026)

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Jurisdiction of Civil Courts -- 'Scheduled Areas', although referring to a specific geographical area, cannot be taken to mean, in view of the object and intent of Schedule V to the Constitution, to be applicable to non-tribal parties -- The Civil Court had the requisite jurisdiction to entertain the dispute pertaining to non-tribal parties.

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A. Andhra Pradesh Civil Courts Act, 1972 (19 of 1972), Section 1(3) -- Precedent -- Binding Precedent -- Nagarjuna Gramin Bank v. Medi Narayana’s case did not lay down any proposition of law, much less to be a binding precedent -- It was rather a case of judicial deference to the executive/legislature without a legal analysis of the provisions of the Andhra Pradesh Civil Courts Act, 1972.

(Paras 9.5, 9.7, 15)

B. Constitution of India, Article 14 and Fifth Schedule -- Andhra Pradesh Civil Courts Act, 1972 (19 of 1972), Section 1(3) -- Civil Courts -- Jurisdiction in Scheduled Areas -- Disputes between exclusively non-tribal parties -- The notification of Scheduled Areas is specifically directed towards the people of the Scheduled Tribes living in that area -- Merely because the word ‘area’ has been used, it cannot be said that any and everything that falls within that geographical area pertains to scheduled tribes -- There is no basis for a blanket exclusion of Civil Courts in so far as it pertains to civil disputes of succession between exclusively non-tribal parties although the property is situated within Scheduled Areas -- The jurisdiction of the Civil Courts shall stand restored in so far as civil transactions involving exclusively non-tribal parties are concerned.

(Paras 12.5, 12.6, 13-15)

Posted On: 09-08-2026
117. (P&H HC) (Decided on : 04.08.2026)

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Bar of jurisdiction of Civil Court -- Electricity theft -- Civil Court's jurisdiction is not barred merely because allegations of theft have been made -- Jurisdiction would be barred only where a complaint regarding theft of energy has been filed by the competent officer/authority before the Special Court and cognizance has been taken, or where an FIR has been registered by the police and the matter has proceeded in accordance with law.

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S.126 Electricity Act, 2003 -- Penalty -- Natural justice -- Penalty cannot be imposed directly without first making and communicating provisional assessment and providing opportunity of hearing to the consumer -- Direct imposition of penalty without following mandatory procedure under Section 126 violates principles of natural justice.

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A. Electricity Act, 2003 (36 of 2003), Sections 145, 151 and 154 -- Bar of jurisdiction of Civil Court -- Theft of electricity -- Cognizance by Special Court -- Suit challenging demand raised towards loss and compounding charges -- Mere allegation of theft of electricity does not by itself bar jurisdiction of Civil Court -- Jurisdiction would be barred only where a complaint regarding theft of energy has been lodged by the competent officer/authority and the Special Court has taken cognizance thereof, or where the requisite criminal proceedings have been initiated in accordance with law -- In absence of complaint before the Special Court or registration of FIR and cognizance thereof, Civil Court's jurisdiction is not barred.

(Para 9, 14-16)

B. Electricity Act, 2003 (36 of 2003), Section 126 – Penalty -- Assessment -- Natural justice -- Penalty cannot be imposed without first making and communicating provisional assessment and providing opportunity of hearing to the consumer -- Direct imposition of penalty without following mandatory procedure under Section 126 violates principles of natural justice.

(Para 10-12)

C. Electricity Meter installed outside premises -- Tampering/defect -- Liability -- Courts below concurrently found that the electricity meter of the plaintiff was installed outside his premises and, in such circumstances, liability for tampering could not be fastened upon the plaintiff, as under Sales Circular No. D-21 of 2007, responsibility in case of tampering with or defect in a meter installed outside the premises was that of the Feeder Manager -- Findings based upon proper appreciation of facts, pleadings and law -- No substantial question of law arising for adjudication -- Regular second appeal dismissed.

(Para 12, 17)

Posted On: 08-08-2026
119. (SC) (Decided on : 04.08.2026)

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Road safety -- A right to safe travel is inherent to the right to free movement and the right to life and liberty under Article 21.

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Road safety -- Third-party insurance for four years for new cars and six years for new two-wheelers is now mandatorily required to be purchased.

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MACT -- Owner/ occupant -- Insurance companies are liable to compensate for any occupant in the vehicle under a comprehensive/package policy, which covers the owner of the vehicle as well, who was travelling in the car as a passenger.

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A. Constitution of India, Articles 21 and 19(1)(d) – Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 (59 of 1988), Section 146 – Right to safe travel – Road safety – Third-party motor vehicle insurance – An unfortunate reality of road safety in India is that despite the existence of a statutory framework mandating third-party motor vehicle insurance, compliance thereof is found to be lacking – Consequently, victims or families affected by motor accidents often have to run pillar to post in order to receive compensation – The Right to safe travel is inherent to the right to free movement under Article 19(1)(d) and the right to life and liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution – The object behind mandatory insurance under Section 146 of the MVA is not just that victims of road accidents are compensated, but also that they are not drawn into prolonged litigation – Integration of the enforcement system with technology is the need of the hour to ensure compliance with statutorily mandated insurance.

(Paras 16-17, 20-21)

B. Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 (59 of 1988), Sections 146 and 196 – Mandatory third party insurance – Enforcement – Technology integration – Directions – Existing offline technology for issuance of challans and road-safety management is required to be integrated with e-models, specifically when it comes to ensuring compliance with statutorily mandated insurance – ANPR Cameras deployed on highways and roads are to be integrated with data from the Insurance Information Bureau and the VAHAN portal for issuance of automatic e-challans to uninsured vehicles – State Police to be provided with handheld devices or downloadable apps, linked with the data from Insurance Information Bureau and VAHAN portal, to monitor real-time insurance status of vehicles and impose challans for violations – Henceforth, third-party insurance for four years for new cars and six years for new two wheelers be required to be purchased.

(Paras 18, 22, 23.1-23.2 and 23.7)

C. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999 (41 of 1999), Section 14 – Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 (59 of 1988), Section 146 – Motor-vehicle insurance – Uniform policy structure – Customer option form – A broad four-layer structure is to be implemented for private vehicles to bring clarity to policy options, allowing the vehicle-owner to make an informed choice: (I) Third Party only base policy; (II) Optional cover for the occupant(s)/pillion rider; (III) Personal accident cover for the owner, driver and occupant(s); and (IV) Own damage cover -- Every customer will be issued a ‘customer option form’ at the time of purchase to ‘opt in’ via check box to the add-on options -- The IRDA shall formulate uniform policy wordings for these optional covers.

(Para 23.4-23.5)

D. Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 (59 of 1988), Section 166 – Motor accident claim – Comprehensive/package policy – Liability of insurance company – Owner travelling as passenger – In accordance with the circular of the IRDA dated 16.11.2009, insurance companies are liable to compensate for any occupant in the vehicle under a comprehensive/package policy – A comprehensive policy would cover the owner of the vehicle as well, who was travelling in the car as a passenger – Tribunal erroneously absolved the insurance company of its liability on the ground that no extra premium was paid to cover the personal risk of the owner’s vehicle – Courts, in matters concerning motor accident claims, should not adopt a hyper-technical approach.

(Paras 27, 29, 31 and 34)

Posted On: 08-08-2026
120. (SC) (Decided on: 06.08.2026)

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Compulsory Retirement – The object of compulsory retirement is to weed out the dead wood – The order is not punitive in nature and is passed in public interest and thus, Judicial review is extremely narrow and restricted

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A. Fundamental Rules, Rule 56(j) – Compulsory Retirement – Object and scope of judicial review – The object underlying compulsory retirement is to weed out the dead wood so as to maintain a high standard of efficiency and integrity in public service – An order of compulsory retirement is not punitive in nature and implies neither stigma, prejudice nor any suggestion of misbehaviour – The order is passed in public interest on the subjective satisfaction of the Government – Principles of natural justice, audi alteram partem, find no application – Judicial review is extremely narrow and restricted – The Court, while exercising judicial review, cannot sit in judgment as an appellate authority, but can interfere where the order is malafide, based on no evidence, arbitrary or perverse.

(Paras 5, 7)

B. Fundamental Rules, Rule 56(j) – Compulsory Retirement – Assessment of service record – “Washed-off theory” – Disciplined force – Members of the CISF, being a disciplined and uniformed force entrusted with vital security functions, are expected to maintain a consistently high standard of efficiency, vigilance and discipline -- Government or the Review Committee, as the case may be, shall take a decision considering the entire record of service, attaching more importance and weightage to records and performance during the subsequent years, weighing in both favourable and adverse remarks – An order of compulsory retirement cannot be invalidated merely because uncommunicated adverse remarks formed part of the material considered by the authority – The “washed-off theory”, applicable in matters relating to promotion, has no application where the competent authority assesses the suitability of an employee for continued retention in service – Where the performance of an employee suffers a discernible decline in the last two years immediately preceding the order of compulsory retirement, such decline is material for determining whether the employee is fit to be retained in service – The entire service record may be considered, including adverse material preceding the employee’s promotion, while due weight must be accorded to the service record of the immediate past period.

(Paras 6, 8-15)

Posted On: 08-08-2026
121. (SC) (Decided on: 17.04.2026)

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Jurisdiction of Reference Court -- The jurisdiction exercised by the Reference Court under Section 3H(4) is, wide enough to incidentally determine questions of title insofar as such determination is necessary for deciding the person entitled to the compensation arising out of the acquisition.

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Approbate and reprobate -- A litigant who has taken the benefit of a remand order cannot subsequently challenge the jurisdiction of the forum to which the matter was remitted merely because the findings ultimately returned are averse to him.

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A. National Highways Act, 1956 (48 of 1956), Section 3H(4) -- Jurisdiction of Reference Court -- Determination of title -- A dispute arose between the appellants and respondent No. 1 asserting a competing claim over the acquired property and over the compensation amount payable therefor -- The determination of the person entitled to receive compensation inevitably requires an adjudication of the underlying claim of title -- Such an inquiry is incidental and integral to the jurisdiction conferred under Section 3H(4) -- A reference to the principal civil court is not intended to be a mere ministerial exercise of dividing the compensation amongst claimants -- Its purpose is to secure a judicial determination of the person lawfully entitled to receive the compensation where such entitlement itself is disputed -- The jurisdiction exercised by the Reference Court under Section 3H(4) is, therefore, wide enough to incidentally determine questions of title -- Any contrary interpretation would frustrate the legislative scheme and compel parties to simultaneously pursue independent civil suits for declaration of title, thereby defeating the very object of referring the dispute to the principal civil court.

(Paras 7, 15, 18, 22.5, 22.6, 22.7)

B. Remand order -- Finality inter partes -- Approbate and reprobate -- Once the remand order was accepted by the parties and was not subjected to any further challenge, the directions contained therein became binding upon both the parties as well as the Reference Court -- A litigant who has taken the benefit of a remand order cannot subsequently challenge the jurisdiction of the forum to which the matter was remitted merely because the findings ultimately returned are averse to him.

(Paras 22-24)

Posted On: 08-08-2026
122. (SC) (Decided on: 04.08.2026)

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Ratification -- A ratified act is deemed valid from the date of the original, unauthorised act, and not merely from the date of ratification.

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Acceptance of resignation without authority -- Principle against approbation and reprobation -- A resignation, though initially accepted by one not clothed with authority, may nonetheless become a consummated and irrevocable transaction where both sides have treated it as final and altered their positions upon that footing.

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Withdrawal of resignation -- Resignation shall take effect only on the date on which the resignation is accepted by the appointing authority, and non-communication of an acceptance does not keep the resignation alive for withdrawal.

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A. Delhi Technological University Act, 2009 (6 of 2009), Section 23(2)(ix) -- Service Law -- Resignation -- Ratification -- Withdrawal of resignation -- Respondent tendered his resignation, requested waiver of the notice period, and was relieved with effect from 31.05.2016 by an officer holding additional charge of Vice-Chancellor who was not the competent authority under Section 23(2)(ix) -- Nearly four months after being relieved and having accepted all consequential benefits, the respondent sought withdrawal of his resignation before the Board of Management (BOM) ratified the acceptance of the resignation -- A ratified act is deemed valid from the date of the original, unauthorised act, and not merely from the date of ratification -- Once the competent authority ratifies an act, the law treats it as though the authority had existed from the beginning, and ratification operates retrospectively to cure the defect arising from the absence of prior authority -- Once ratified, the acceptance related back to the date on which the resignation was accepted by the In-charge Vice-Chancellor, leaving, in point of law, no resignation in existence which the respondent could have withdrawn -- An employee who has acted upon and accepted the consequences of his own resignation cannot later found a challenge on a technical infirmity in the mode of its acceptance.

(Paras 4, 5, 16-19, 24, 25)

B. Delhi Technological University Act, 2009 (6 of 2009), Section 23(2)(ix) -- Service Law -- Acceptance of resignation without authority -- Principle against approbation and reprobation -- A resignation, even where accepted in the first instance by one not clothed with authority to accept it, may nonetheless become a consummated and irrevocable transaction where both sides have, by their conduct, treated it as final and altered their positions upon that footing -- In such a case, an employee is precluded, not by any doctrine of curative ratification but by the ordinary principle against approbation and reprobation, from later impugning the very transaction he brought about and from which he has already taken the entire benefit.

(Para 20)

C. First Statutes of the National Institute of Technology, 2009, Statute 30 -- Service Law -- Resignation -- Effective date of resignation -- Non-communication of acceptance -- Withdrawal of resignation -- Respondent tendered an unconditional letter of resignation which was accepted by the competent authority on 22.11.2018, but before such acceptance was communicated on 04.12.2018 and before he was permitted to be relieved upon completion of the notice period, sought to withdraw his resignation on 28.11.2018 -- The proviso to Statute 30 of the NIT First Statutes, 2009, is explicit that resignation shall take effect only on the date on which it is accepted by the appointing authority -- It imposes neither any requirement of communication as a condition of efficacy nor makes acceptance of resignation contingent upon expiry of the notice period -- Non-communication of an acceptance which has, in fact, already been made by the competent authority does not keep the resignation alive for withdrawal.

(Paras 8, 9, 27)

Posted On: 02-08-2026
132. (J&K&L HC) (Reserved on: 07.07.2026 Decided on: 17.07.2026)

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Cheque bounce complaint -- Second complaint -- Delay liable to be condoned by excluding the period spent by the complainant in prosecuting the previous complaint dismissed on account of its prematurity.

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Cheque bounce complaint -- Findings given in first complaint set aside in appeal – As such cannot have any bearing on the merits of the fresh complaint.

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A. Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (26 of 1881), Section 138 and 142(b) – Cheque bounce complaint -- Condonation of delay – Second complaint -- Previous complaint dismissed as premature -- Exclusion of period spent in prosecuting previous complaint -- Delay in filing the fresh complaint is liable to be condoned by excluding the period spent in prosecuting the previous complaint which was dismissed on account of its prematurity -- Where the payee or holder in due course files a fresh complaint within one month from the date of decision in the earlier criminal case, the delay in filing the complaint shall be treated as having been condoned under the proviso to S.142(b).

(Paras 5-9, 13-15)

B. Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (Act No. 26 of 1881), Section 138 – Second complaint -- Effect of findings recorded in earlier proceedings -- Findings recorded by the trial Court on merits, having been set aside by the High Court while deciding the appeal against acquittal, have no existence in the eyes of law and, therefore, cannot have any bearing on the merits of the fresh complaint.

(Para 12)

Posted On: 02-08-2026
133. (J&K&L HC) (Reserved on: 07.07.2026 Decided on: 17.07.2026)

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Summoning of accused -- At the time of considering the issuance of process against the accused, the Magistrate is required not only to take into consideration the allegations made in the complaint, but also the material collected by the Inquiry Officer, to whom the inquiry has been entrusted under Section 202 CrPC.

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Second revision petition -- Bar put by Section 397(3) CrPC on a second revision petition cannot be allowed to be circumvented by resorting to inherent powers of the High Court under Section 482.

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A. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Section 202 and 203 -- Indian Penal Code, 1860 (45 of 1860), Section 406 -- Issuance of process -- Dismissal of complaint -- Consideration of report under S. 202 CrPC -- Complaint alleging commission of offence under S. 406 IPC -- SHO, upon inquiry, reported that the petitioner had abandoned the shop leaving outstanding rent and electricity charges and that the articles were retained by the respondents as security in terms of a settlement affidavit -- Trial Magistrate dismissed the complaint under S. 203 CrPC, which was upheld in revision -- Held, while considering issuance of process against the accused, the Magistrate is required to take into consideration not only the allegations made in the complaint but also the material collected by the Inquiry Officer to whom the inquiry has been entrusted under S. 202 CrPC -- There was sufficient material before the trial Magistrate to conclude that the dispute between the parties was purely of civil nature and had been given a criminal colour by filing the complaint -- Finding of the trial Magistrate was based upon adequate material and could not be said to be perverse.

(Para 2, 3, 8-11)

B. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Section 397(3), 482 -- Second revision petition -- Bar under Section 397(3) -- Exercise of inherent powers by High Court -- Bar put by Section 397(3) of Cr. P. C on the second revision petition cannot be allowed to be circumvented by resorting to inherent powers of the High Court u/s 482 Cr. P. C. -- It is only in very exceptional and rare cases that High Court would entertain a petition u/s 482 Cr. P. C against an order passed by a Sessions Court in exercise of its revisional jurisdiction – No exceptional circumstances in the present case – Petition dismissed.

(Para 12)

Posted On: 02-08-2026
134. (J&K&L HC) (Reserved on: 15.07.2026 Decided on: 22.07.2026)

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Writ jurisdiction -- Compensation in exercise of writ jurisdiction or inherent jurisdiction is an exceptional public law remedy available only when there is an established violation of fundamental rights, coupled with malafides or gross abuse of process causing demonstrable harm.

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Fundamental Rights -- Mere registration of FIR on receiving information of commission of a cognizable offence and closure as "not admitted" do not constitute violation of any of the fundamental rights.

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A. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Section 482 -- Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 (61 of 1985), Sections 8A, 27B and 29 -- Inherent powers -- Grant of compensation -- Petition under Section 482 CrPC seeking quashment of FIR and compensation -- Investigation closed as “not admitted” for want of sufficient admissible evidence -- Compensation in writ or inherent jurisdiction is an exceptional public law remedy available only upon established violation of fundamental rights coupled with malafides or gross abuse of process causing demonstrable harm -- Investigation having been conducted in accordance with law and petitioners having neither been arrested nor subjected to harassment, custodial torture or illegal detention, mere registration of FIR and its subsequent closure as “not admitted” did not constitute violation of any fundamental right – Claim for compensation rejected.

(Para 1, 3, 12, 13)

B. Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 (61 of 1985), Sections 8A and 27B -- Illegal trafficking and laundering of proceeds -- Applicability of Sections 8A and 27B -- Allegations in FIR prima facie disclosed involvement of petitioners in illegal trafficking of narcotic drugs and laundering of proceeds therefrom, attracting Section 8A, punishable under Section 27B -- Contention that the FIR did not disclose any cognizable offence as the provisions were not standalone substantive offences, held, misconceived.

(Para 16)

Posted On: 02-08-2026
135. (J&K&L HC) (Reserved on: 16.07.2026 Decided on: 23.07.2026)

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Preventive detention -- Mere fact that the dossier and the detention order share the same date cannot lead to an automatic presumption of arbitrariness.

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Preventive detention -- "Public order" vs. "Law and order" -- While every disturbance of public order involves a breach of law and order, every crime affecting law and order does not inherently disturb public order.

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Preventive detention -- Scope of judicial review -- Court does not sit in appeal over the material on record to supplant the subjective satisfaction; the judicial inquiry is strictly confined to verifying adherence to constitutional and statutory guarantees.

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A. Jammu and Kashmir Public Safety Act, 1978 (6 of 1978), Section 8(1)(a) -- Preventive detention -- Procedural safeguards -- Challenge to detention order on the ground of non-compliance with constitutional and statutory safeguards and non-application of mind owing to the dossier and detention order bearing the same date -- Detention record established that the detenue was supplied with all relied upon documents and informed of his right to make a representation to the Government as well as the District Magistrate -- Mere identity of dates on the dossier and detention order does not give rise to a presumption of arbitrariness -- Grounds of detention disclosed a conscious and independent assessment of the detenu's conduct and were not a mere copy-paste of the police dossier – Detention order not warrants interference.

(Para 1, 2, 7-9, 14)

B. Jammu and Kashmir Public Safety Act, 1978 (6 of 1978), Section 8(1)(a) -- Preventive detention -- "Public order" vs. "Law and order" -- Detenu, an alleged member of an organized criminal gang involved in multiple FIRs, was accused of opening indiscriminate fire upon a police patrolling party -- While every disturbance of public order involves a breach of law and order, every crime affecting law and order does not inherently disturb public order -- Violent conduct of the detenu transcended ordinary law enforcement issues and fell squarely within the ambit of public order, being sufficient to instil fear and insecurity in the citizenry and possessing the propensity to disturb public order -- Detention order not warrants interference.

(Paras 10, 11, 14)

C. Constitution of India, 1950, Article 226 -- Jammu and Kashmir Public Safety Act, 1978 (6 of 1978), Section 8(1)(a) -- Preventive detention -- Scope of judicial review -- Jurisdiction under Article 226 to review preventive detention orders is inherently circumscribed -- Court does not sit in appeal over the material on record to supplant the subjective satisfaction of the detaining authority -- Judicial review is confined to examining compliance with constitutional and statutory safeguards and whether the detention order suffers from mala fides or total non-application of mind.

(Para 13) 

Posted On: 01-08-2026
137. (SC) (Decided on: 27.07.2026)

***

Interim custody of seized property -- Scope of jurisdiction -- While exercising powers under Sections 451 and 457 CrPC, the Court determines only prima facie entitlement to interim possession and not title or ownership -- Registration certificate is a relevant but not conclusive factor for grant of interim custody.

***

A. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Sections 451 and 457 -- Interim custody of seized property -- Nature and scope of jurisdiction -- Subject vehicles, though registered in the name of the appellant's company, were seized during investigation into allegations of criminal trespass and misappropriation of company funds -- High Court granted interim custody to the respondent company -- Held, Sections 451 and 457 CrPC confer wide judicial discretion upon the Criminal Court to entrust interim custody of seized property to the person found prima facie entitled to its possession -- The enquiry under the said provisions is confined to interim possession and does not extend to adjudication of title or ownership, which falls within the domain of the competent civil forum.

(Para 2-11, 27, 30)

B. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Sections 451 and 457 -- Interim custody of seized vehicles -- Registration Certificate -- Evidentiary value -- Continued possession -- Payment of hypothecation instalments -- Registration certificate, though a relevant piece of evidence, is not decisive of the question relating to interim custody -- There exists no inflexible principle that interim custody must invariably follow the registration certificate irrespective of other relevant circumstances -- Held, where the respondent company was in continued possession of the vehicles, had admittedly discharged the hypothecation instalments from its own account and the appellant had executed an undertaking permitting continued use of the vehicles by the respondent company, such circumstances outweighed the evidentiary value of the registration certificates and justified grant of interim custody in favour of the respondent company.

(Para 32-37)

Posted On: 01-08-2026
138. (SC) (Decided on: 24.07.2026)

***

Service Law -- Estoppel by participation -- A candidate who participates in a selection process without objection cannot ordinarily challenge the process after being declared unsuccessful -- However, where arbitrariness or illegality in the selection process is writ large and vitiates the selection, participation would not preclude the candidate from questioning the process and seeking appropriate relief.

***

Shortlisting of candidates -- Rule providing only one mode of shortlisting -- Selection Committee could not prescribe qualifying or cut-off marks not contemplated by the Rules -- Once the rule-making authority consciously provided only one mode of shortlisting, it was not open to the Selection Committee to superimpose an additional eligibility threshold -- The rules of the game could not have been changed mid-way to the detriment of eligible candidates.

***

Relief -- Arbitrary exclusion from selection -- Passage of time -- Where candidates establish that they were subjected to arbitrary treatment and sufficient vacancies continue to exist, relief cannot be denied merely because they have grown in age.

***

A. Uttar Pradesh Industrial Training Institutes (Instructors) Service Rules, 2014, Rules 9(B), 16(3)(a)(iii) and 17(3) -- Selection process -- Estoppel by participation -- Arbitrariness in State action -- Appellants participated in the recruitment process with full knowledge that CITS certificate had been made a preferential qualification and without challenging the Rules or the advertisements prior to the examination -- Though a candidate cannot ordinarily challenge a selection process after participating therein, such principle has no application where arbitrariness or illegality in the process is writ large -- Failure of the Selection Committee/State of Uttar Pradesh to follow the recruitment procedure prescribed under the 2014 Rules, by introducing an arbitrary qualifying/cut-off mark not contemplated by the Rules, vitiated the process of selection -- Participation by the appellants could not validate such illegality or disentitle them from relief.

(Paras 9-11, 19)

B. Uttar Pradesh Industrial Training Institutes (Instructors) Service Rules, 2014, Rule 16(3)(b)(i) -- Direct recruitment -- Shortlisting of candidates -- Prescription of qualifying/cut-off marks -- Rule 16(3)(b)(i) envisages shortlisting only where applications are received in large numbers by restricting candidates called for interview to four times the number of vacancies -- Rule does not contemplate exclusion of eligible candidates from the zone of consideration on the basis of qualifying or cut-off marks secured under Rule 16(3)(a) -- Selection Committee, having no authority to superimpose an additional eligibility threshold, acted contrary to the recruitment procedure prescribed under the Rules -- Prescription of qualifying/cut-off marks resulted in exclusion of eligible candidates and substantial vacancies remaining unfilled -- Such action was arbitrary and amounted to changing the rules of the game mid-way.

(Para 12, 16-19)

C. Constitution of India, Article 14 -- Direct recruitment -- Service Law -- Relief -- Available vacancies -- Passage of time -- More than a decade having elapsed since issuance of the advertisements and the appellants having advanced in age, relief could not be denied solely on that ground -- Appellants having established arbitrary exclusion from the selection process and sufficient vacancies being available for their accommodation, denial of relief would result in injustice -- Direction issued to consider the appellants for appointment against existing vacancies after interview in accordance with the Rules, with prospective effect.

(Para 20-23)

Posted On: 01-08-2026
139. (SC) (Decided on: 23.07.2026)

***

Declaration of law -- Dismissal of Special Leave Petition expressly reserving question of law does not constitute binding precedent.

***

A. Modified Assured Career Progression Scheme (MACPS), Paragraphs 5 and 8 – Guards in Indian Railways -- Promotions carrying the same Grade Pay -- A promotion does not cease to be a promotion merely because the promotee's Grade Pay does not change -- Characteristic elements of a promotion are the formal process by which it is granted, the enhanced responsibilities of the higher post, and the structural hierarchy within which it is situated -- Promotions within the Guard cadre continue to retain their promotional character notwithstanding convergence of Grade Pay after the Sixth Central Pay Commission -- Such promotions satisfy the requirements of Paragraph 8 of the MACPS and are liable to be counted for grant of financial upgradations.

-- Paragraph 8 of the MACPS applies to the Guard cadre. The posts of Senior Goods Guard, Passenger Guard, Senior Passenger Guard, and Mail/Express Guard are distinct posts in the promotional hierarchy as per the applicable Recruitment Rules, carrying the same Grade Pay of Rs. 4200 in Pay Band PB-2. The functional promotions earned within the Guard cadre constitute "promotions" within the meaning of Paragraph 8. An employee who has traversed the Guard cadre up to Mail/Express Guard has earned three promotions counted under Paragraph 8 (with the Passenger Guard to Senior Passenger Guard movement ignored under Paragraph 5) and has thereby exhausted all three financial upgradation slots under the MACPS. He is not entitled to any further financial upgradation.

-- The illustration to Paragraph 5, correctly understood, is a transitional provision addressing the treatment of pre-MACPS ACP-era promotions and upgradations. It does not override Paragraph 8 in respect of the post-01.09.2008 MACPS period. The Guard cadre's pre-revised pay scales correspond to those in the illustration, but the illustration directs only that pre-MACPS promotions be ignored for the purpose of the MACPS starting count; it does not direct that all subsequent promotions earned within the MACPS period, or all promotions earned before the MACPS period but counted under Paragraph 8, are similarly to be ignored.

(Para 5, 6, 40, 41, 44, 46, 65(i), 65(iii))

B. Modified Assured Career Progression Scheme (MACPS), Paragraphs 2 and 8 -- Financial Stagnation -- Meaning of 'Promotion' -- Mere absence of change in Grade Pay does not divest a promotion of its Promotional character -- Promotions within the Guard cadre carrying the same Grade Pay nevertheless entitle the employee to promotional increments, enhanced basic pay, running-duty allowances and post-specific emoluments -- An employee who has received successive promotions with corresponding financial benefits cannot be regarded as having suffered financial stagnation within the meaning of the MACPS and is, therefore, not entitled to further financial upgradation.

(Para 38, 40, 62, 65(ii))

C. Modified Assured Career Progression Scheme (MACPS), Paragraph 2 -- Grade Pay Ceiling -- Binding nature of executive clarifications -- Departmental clarifications issued by the DoPT are integral to the Scheme and binding on all authorities -- RBE Nos. 76/2011 and 142/2012 clarify that financial upgradation under the MACPS cannot exceed the Grade Pay ceiling of the promotional hierarchy -- An employee cannot be granted Grade Pay higher than what he may get on actual promotion in the hierarchy applies to the MACPS and governs the present case.

(Para 48, 50, 54, 65(iv), 65(v))

D. Constitution of India, 1950, Article 141 — Dismissal of Special Leave Petition — An order dismissing a Special Leave Petition while expressly leaving the question of law open does not constitute a declaration of law under Article 141 or a binding precedent — Reliance thereon by the High Court as determinative of the legal position held, erroneous.

(Para 57, 65(vi))

Posted On: 31-07-2026
141. (SC) (Decided on: 28.07.2026)

***

Constitution of India -- Article 338 -- Powers of National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) -- Legislature has prescribed for the NCSC a role that is recommendatory and advisory, but certainly not adjudicatory.

***

National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) -- Scope of powers -- NCSC can record a factual finding and then ask the concerned Government, either the Centre or the State, to act thereupon -- It certainly does not have adjudicatory power.

***

A. Constitution of India, Article 338 -- Powers of National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) -- Adjudicatory vs. recommendatory role -- Legislature has prescribed for the NCSC a role that is recommendatory and advisory, but certainly not adjudicatory -- NCSC is not meant to be a body taking over adjudicatory functions -- Directions issued by the NCSC directing implementation of its order and payment of arrears held contrary to the provisions of the Constitution and, as such, non est in law.

(Para 4, 13, 14)

B. Constitution of India, Article 338(8) -- Powers of National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) -- Powers of Civil Court -- Limited scope -- Legislature has been categorical in the powers of the Civil Court extended to the NCSC -- Use of the expression "namely" while enumerating such powers indicates their limited scope -- Though the NCSC has power to requisition documents and receive evidence, it does not have the power to make an order in furtherance of such evidence -- NCSC can record a factual finding and then ask the concerned Government, either the Centre or the State, to act thereupon -- Such provision certainly does not confer adjudicatory power.

(Para 9)

Posted On: 31-07-2026
142. (SC) (Decided on : 21.07.2026)

***

Consent decree -- Article 142 cannot be employed to supplant the concluded and acted upon terms of a consensual arrangement between the parties.

***

Execution of consent decree -- Scope of enquiry remains a limited one -- It cannot be made a vehicle for rewriting the terms of a settlement which the parties themselves arrived at and acted upon.

***

A. Constitution of India, Articles 136, 142 -- Scope of interference -- Concurrent findings -- Creation of corpus -- Family Court and the High Court, on a concurrent appreciation of the same material, placed upon the settlement a construction which is natural, harmonious and fortified by the conduct of the parties -- No interference warranted -- Prayer for creation of a corpus towards higher education in exercise of powers under Article 142 cannot be acceded to, as issuance of such a direction would, in substance, amount to recasting a settlement which stands performed and discharged and undertaking, in execution, a fresh determination of the quantum of maintenance -- The jurisdiction under Article 142, wide as it is, cannot be employed to supplant the concluded and acted upon terms of a consensual arrangement between the parties.

(Para 33 and 34)

B. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (5 of 1908), Order 21 Rule 10 -- Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 (25 of 1955), Sections 13-B and 28-A -- Family Courts Act, 1984 (66 of 1984), Section 7 -- Execution of consent decree -- Scope of executing court -- Where an execution petition is instituted for enforcement of a specific covenant of a concluded consent decree, the enquiry remains a limited one, namely, whether on a true construction of the settlement, the obligation stated to have been left unsatisfied subsists and remains enforceable, and not whether a larger or a different provision ought now to be made -- Where, on its true construction, the covenant stands satisfied, a general obligation to maintain cannot be invoked in execution to revive a discharged term or to substitute therefor a fresh and larger provision -- The general principle, whatever be its content, cannot be made a vehicle for rewriting the terms of a settlement which the parties themselves arrived at and acted upon.

(Paras 24 and 32)

C. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (5 of 1908), Order 21 Rule 10 -- Limitation Act, 1963 (36 of 1963), Article 136 -- Execution of decree -- Conduct of parties -- Relevance of delay -- Held, where the entire amount under Clause 8 stood paid and no demand was raised towards payment of twenty per cent of the annual income during the intervening period of nearly five years, such silence reinforces the construction that the income-linked obligation stood discharged -- Delay was noticed not as a ground of limitation but as a circumstance illuminating the common understanding of the parties with regard to the meaning and operation of the settlement.

(Para 28 and 29)

D. Interpretation of Deeds -- Canons of construction -- Harmonious construction -- Rule of repugnancy -- Held, an interpretation which renders an express clause otiose is to be eschewed in favour of the one which gives effect to the instrument as a whole -- The rule of construction that an earlier clause prevails over a later one is attracted only where two clauses are so repugnant to each other that they cannot possibly be reconciled.

(Paras 26 and 31)

Posted On: 31-07-2026
143. (SC) (Decided on: 21.07.2026)

***

Juvenile Justice Act -- Classification of Offences -- Heinous offence -- Offence punishable under Section 302 IPC carries life imprisonment as its minimum punishment by necessary implication and therefore falls within definition of "heinous offence".

***

Juvenile Justice Act -- Appeal -- Section 101(2) -- Expression "may" is enabling and discretionary and does not oblige Appellate Court to obtain expert assistance in every appeal arising from Section 15.

***

Juvenile Act -- Preliminary Assessment -- JJ Board must independently apply its mind to all available materials, including the Social Investigation Report (SIR) and Social Background Report (SBR).

***

A. Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 (2 of 2016), Sections 2(33) and 2(54) -- Indian Penal Code, 1860 (45 of 1860), Section 302 -- Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Section 433A -- Classification of Offence – Murder -- Heinous Offence -- The juvenile appellant, aged above 16 years, was apprehended for allegedly slitting the throat of the deceased -- The appellant contended that Section 302 IPC does not prescribe a minimum punishment and should therefore fall under the definition of a "serious offence" under Section 2(54)(b) – Held that a court convicting an accused of an offence under Section 302 of the IPC cannot impose any lesser sentence than imprisonment for life -- Life imprisonment constitutes the minimum punishment by necessary implication -- The disjunctive "or" between "death" and "imprisonment for life" merely confers discretion to choose between the two punishments, but does not open any avenue for a lesser imprisonment -- Section 21, which prohibits imprisonment for life without possibility of release, operates only at the stage of sentencing and has no bearing on classification of the offence -- Categorized as a "heinous offence".

(Paras 8, 14, 32, 33, 39, 40, 85)

B. Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 (2 of 2016), Sections 15 and 101(2) -- Appeal -- Mandatory or directory nature of expert assistance -- Preliminary assessment -- JJ Board disposed of the case by relying solely on the expert's preliminary assessment report, ignoring the Social Investigation Report (SIR) and Social Background Report (SBR) -- Appellate Court reversed the decision and directed that the appellant be tried as an adult without obtaining fresh expert assistance -- Held, the word "may" in Section 101(2) does not mandate the Appellate Court to seek expert assistance in every appeal arising from an order under Section 15 -- The expression "may" is enabling and permissive, conferring discretion upon the Appellate Court -- SIR and SBR are not supplementary material but constitute pertinent inputs which must be accorded due weight alongside the expert opinion -- JJ Board must independently apply its mind to all material available before arriving at its conclusion.

(Paras 49, 50, 56, 79, 84, 85)

Posted On: 31-07-2026
144. (SC) (Decided on: 21.07.2026)

***

Service Law -- Minor Penalty -- Effective Date -- Promotion -- Minor penalty imposed in substitution of termination relates back to the date of the original termination -- Promotion granted pursuant to Review DPC must carry all consequential benefits and cannot be restricted to notional promotion alone.

***

Quashing of Contempt Proceedings -- Contempt proceedings quashed on the condition of payment of costs of Rs. 10 lacs to defray prolonged litigation, considering the appellant's promising career was cut short due to the authorities' callous indifference and apathetic pen-pushing.

***

A. Central Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, 1965 -- Disciplinary Proceedings -- Minor Penalty -- Effective Date -- Relation Back -- Promotion -- Appellant, an Assistant Commandant in the Central Reserve Police Force, was removed from service on 10.07.1995 -- Pursuant to prolonged litigation, the Division Bench set aside the second order of termination dated 16.10.2018 and directed imposition of the minor penalty already determined by the Disciplinary Authority, namely, reduction by one stage in the time scale of pay for three years, without cumulative effect and without adversely affecting pension -- Held, the direction to impose the minor penalty necessarily related back to the date of the original termination, i.e. 10.07.1995, and the penalty stood exhausted on 10.07.1998 -- Consequently, promotion as Deputy Commandant, granted pursuant to the Review Departmental Promotion Committee (DPC), could not be confined to notional promotion but carried all consequential service benefits from the date the appellant became entitled to promotion under the original DPC -- Appellant held entitled to entire back wages from the date of entitlement to promotion as Deputy Commandant -- If such date of promotion fell after 30.11.2012, the date on which the Division Bench directed reinstatement, the appellant would be entitled to entire back wages from such date till retirement -- If the date of promotion fell prior to 30.11.2012, the period prior thereto would remain notional and back wages would be payable from 30.11.2012 onwards, with consequential refixation of pay, increments, retirement benefits and arrears of pension.

(Paras 12,14, 17-22)

B. Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 (70 of 1971), Sections 12 and 19 -- Quashing of Contempt Proceedings -- Imposition of Costs -- Appellant's promising career was cut short, rendering him unemployed for more than two decades due to the authorities' callous indifference to the repeated directions of the High Court and apathetic pen-pushing -- Contempt proceedings are quashed on the condition of payment of Rs. 10 lakhs as costs to the appellant defraying the costs of the prolonged litigation.

(Paras 18, 23)

Posted On: 27-07-2026
145. (SC) (Decided on: 23.07.2026)

***

"Dead Rent" and "Royalty" -- Dead Rent depends on the area of the mine and is fixed whereas the royalty relates to the quantity of minerals extracted only and is variable.

***

Mining Lease -- Stamp Duty -- Determination -- Stamp duty on execution of a mining lease is payable on the basis of anticipated royalty and not dead rent.

***

A. Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (67 of 1957), Sections 9 & 9A -- Dead Rent and Royalty -- Distinction -- Dead rent is the minimum amount payable by the lessee to the lessor irrespective of whether mining operations are undertaken and is determined with reference to the area leased -- Royalty is payable on the quantity of minerals extracted or removed from the leased area and varies according to such extraction -- Thus, dead rent is fixed, whereas royalty is variable.

(Para 6)

B. Indian Stamp Act, 1899 (2 of 1899), Section 26 -- Mineral Concession Rules, 1960, Rule 31 & Form K -- Stamp Duty -- Mining Lease -- Computation -- Anticipated Royalty -- Appellant applied for a lease to mine limestone -- Dispute arose whether the determinant for the rate at which stamp duty for the agreement was to be calculated would be the "dead rent" or the "anticipated royalty" -- With respect to mining, actual value can only be determined once mining operations commence and, therefore, the value of the subject-matter is indeterminate on the date of execution of the agreement -- Parties consciously executed the lease deed in the statutory Form K, which clearly stipulates that anticipated royalty is the yardstick for computation of stamp duty -- Proviso to Section 26 is not inconsistent with the main provision -- Stamp duty is to be computed on the basis of anticipated royalty and not dead rent.

(Para 2, 10-14)

Posted On: 27-07-2026
146. (SC) (Decided on : 21.07.2026)

***

FERA -- Cognizance of offence -- Mandatory opportunity notice -- Service of an adequate and meaningful opportunity notice under the proviso to Section 61(2) is a mandatory statutory prerequisite for instituting a complaint under Section 56 or 57.

***

CrPC -- Section 482 vis-à-vis Section 397 -- In order to do substantive justice, the High Court can always treat and convert a petition filed under Section 482 as one under Section 397, and vice versa

***

Right to a speedy trial is an essential component of the fundamental right to life and liberty guaranteed under Article 21.

***

A. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Sections 397 and 482 -- Inherent powers of High Court -- Maintainability of -- Quashing Petition -- Availability of an alternative remedy of revision under Section 397 of the CrPC does not, by itself, operate as a bar to the exercise of the inherent jurisdiction of the High Court under Section 482 of the CrPC. -- Issuance of a summons is not an interlocutory order for the purposes of Section 397 -- The two provisions operate in distinct spheres, and the mere existence of a revisional remedy cannot be treated as ousting the jurisdiction preserved under Section 482, which is available wherever there is an abuse of the process of the court or where the ends of justice so require -- In order to do substantive justice, a High Court may always treat and convert a petition filed under Section 482 as one under Section 397, and vice versa, rather than non-suiting a party on a hyper-technical ground of maintainability.

(Paras 11, 13 and 14)

B. Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973 (46 of 1973), Sections 56(1), 57 and 61(2) proviso -- Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Section 482 -- Cognizance of offences -- Mandatory requirement of opportunity notice -- Principle of natural justice – Quashing of summoning order -- Under the proviso to Section 61(2)(ii), where the alleged contravention consists of doing an act without permission, no complaint shall be made unless the person accused of the offence has first been given an opportunity of showing that he had such permission -- Adherence to the principles of natural justice must be read into the statute -- Service of an opportunity notice is a mandatory requirement without which no complaint under Section 56 or 57 can validly be instituted, and no Magistrate can validly take cognizance -- This opportunity must be meaningful and adequate, and not a mere technical or notional compliance -- The burden lies upon the prosecution that such notice was issued and served --  Where the complainant neither stated the date of the opportunity notice nor placed a copy or proof of service on record and the Magistrate took cognizance in a mechanical manner without recording satisfaction of compliance with Section 61(2), the order taking cognizance and issuing summons cannot be sustained in law, liable to be quashed.

(Paras 16-23)

C. Constitution of India, Article 21 -- Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), Section 482 -- Right to speedy trial -- Protracted delay in trial -- Unexplained inaction by prosecution -- Quashing of proceedings -- The right to a speedy and expeditious trial is implicit in the fair, just, and reasonable procedure guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution, extending to every stage of a criminal proceeding including investigation, inquiry, trial, appeal, and revision -- Complaint was instituted in 2002 for a transaction dating back to 1991-1992 --The prosecution failed to collect summons for service for nearly two years -- Despite express time-bound directions from the High Court to conclude the trial within one month (later extended to six months), the complainant refused to collect notices and remained absent right up to the filing of the appeals -- Such persistent and unexplained inaction spanning over 23 years reflects a complete want of diligence -- Permitting the prosecution to continue in such circumstances would unjustly leave the accused in a state of suspended animation indefinitely -- Criminal complaint and summoning order quashed.

(Paras 25, 26, 30-35)

Posted On: 27-07-2026
147. (P&H HC) (Decided on: 16.07.2026)

***

NDPS -- Bail involving commercial quantity -- Prolonged incarceration and inordinate delay in trial without fault of the accused -- The fundamental right to a speedy trial under Article 21 dilutes the statutory embargo created under Section 37 of the NDPS Act.

***

Second/successive regular bail petition -- Maintainable in law -- Requires substantial, effective and consequential change in circumstances to succeed.

***

Bail -- Criminal antecedents -- Involvement of the accused in other FIRs cannot be the sole ground to decline the concession of regular bail if a case is otherwise made out on the merits of the present FIR.

***

A. Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (46 of 2023), Section 483 -- Second/successive regular bail petition -- Maintainability of -- A second/successive regular bail petition is maintainable in law whether the earlier petition was dismissed on merits, dismissed as withdrawn, dismissed as not pressed or dismissed for non-prosecution -- For the second/successive regular bail petition to succeed, the petitioner is required to show substantial, effective and consequential change in circumstances.

(Para 6.1)

B. Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 (61 of 1985), Sections 15(c) and 37 -- Constitution of India, Article 21 -- Bail in commercial quantity -- Delay in trial -- Petitioner was found in alleged possession of 70 Kgs. of poppy husk and had suffered incarceration for 01 year, 01 month and 21 days -- Charges had been framed, but none of the 29 prosecution witnesses had been examined -- Trial was procrastinating and folly thereof cannot be saddled upon the petitioner -- The right to a speedy and expeditious trial is an essential part of the fundamental right to life and liberty guaranteed under Article 21 -- Where the trial has failed to conclude within a reasonable time, resulting in prolonged incarceration, the rigor imposed under Section 37 of the NDPS Act stands diluted -- Grant of bail in a case pertaining to commercial quantity, on the ground of undue delay in trial, cannot be said to be fettered by Section 37 of the NDPS Act -- Bail granted.

(Paras 2, 6, 6.2, 6.3 and 7)

C. Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (46 of 2023), Section 483 -- Bail -- Criminal antecedents -- Petitioner was stated to be involved in three other FIRs -- The antecedents of a person are required to be accounted for while considering a regular bail petition -- However, this factum cannot be a ground sufficient by itself to decline the concession of regular bail to the petitioner in the FIR in question when a case is made out for grant of regular bail upon ratiocinating the facts and circumstances of the said FIR.

(Para 6.4)

Posted On: 25-07-2026
150. (P&H HC) (Reserved on: 14.07.2026 Pronounced on: 16.07.2026)

***

Commercial Disputes -- A party cannot invoke the procedural doctrine of "relation back" of amended pleadings to bypass the mandatory document disclosure requirements under the Commercial Courts Act.

***

Disclosure of documents -- A continuing obligation -- Every document in a party's power, possession, control or custody as on the date of filing the amended written statement must be disclosed.

***

A. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (V of 1908), Order 11Rule 1(10) (as applicable to commercial disputes) -- Disclosure of documents -- Doctrine of relation back -- Once amendment of the written statement is permitted, the amended written statement becomes the operative pleading and the foundation of the defence -- Consequently, the obligation of disclosure extends to all documents in the party's power, possession, control or custody on the date the amended written statement is filed -- Permitting a party to withhold documents available at that stage by relying on the doctrine of relation back would encourage piecemeal disclosure and defeat the legislative object of ensuring early, complete and candid disclosure in commercial litigation.

(Paras 3.3, 9, 12-16)

B. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (5 of 1908), Order 11 Rule 1(10) -- Stage of proceedings -- Diligence -- The disclosure obligations under Order XI are intended to prevent surprise and ensure certainty in trial -- Where the plaintiffs had already concluded their evidence and the matter had reached the stage of defence evidence, greater diligence was expected from the defendant in establishing sufficient cause for non-disclosure of documents.

(Para 20)